My understanding of the Ptolemaic Egypt was that a relatively small Greek population dominated affairs of business and state, while the native Egyptian population was kept in a state of semi-slavery, akin to what they had previously experienced under other dynasties. To me, this dynamic seems as if it would come along with a great deal of racism and discrimination. However, the generation of a syncretic, Graeco-Egyptian religion was pursued as a matter of policy by the Ptolemaic government. Per Wikipedia:

“To legitimize their rule and gain recognition from native Egyptians, the Ptolemies adopted the title of pharaoh and had themselves portrayed on public monuments in Egyptian style and dress; otherwise, the monarchy rigorously maintained its Hellenistic character and traditions.[4] The kingdom had a complex government bureaucracy that exploited the country’s vast economic resources to the benefit of a Greek ruling class, which dominated military, political, and economic affairs, and which rarely integrated into Egyptian society and culture. Native Egyptians maintained power over local and religious institutions, and only gradually accrued power in the bureaucracy, provided they Hellenized.[7]”.

I would guess that the public-facing nativization of the Ptolemys’s regime was at least in part an effort to appease the masses and prevent things like peasant revolts. However, it seems to me that this ideological choice implies a certain degree of respect for the native population on the part of the government, which seemingly contradicts a Hellenizing, Greek-dominated society. My question is therefore how these dynamics can be resolved. Were Egyptians viewed as being equal under the law to Greeks? If not, were Egyptians heavily discriminated against, or alternatively, were they given specific rights, for example, to protect their native practices?