How could women own land in the 1700s withouta man (US)?

by Phantastes12

Ok, I'm asking this question because I am researching someone in North Carolina (USA). She owned land in the late 1700s, when women were not supposed to be able to do that. There is also no mention of a husband in her will or in any records I can find. How could this be?

mimicofmodes

There's always more to be said, but you may be interested in this previous answer of mine:

Jane Austen and the Brontes are among the most treasured voices in the English language despite having published anonymously at a time when married women weren't permitted to enter into contracts.Were there any role models for women writers of their generation?Did their prominence affect these laws?

The short answer, though, is that the only way women could own land in the anglosphere at that time was if they didn't have husbands.