I am currently reading through the book "Oedipus Rex" by Sophocles, when I read through this line stated by Oedipus. "I shall leave nothing undone. With God's help we shall prove fortunate- or fall." Now the word that catches my eye is "God's" it is the only time so far it is singular or capitalized, so it obviously referring to the Judeo-Christain God, but my question is why is it there?
I'd imagine it was put in through efforts by the church to alter pagan works, but why only that verse? He was swearing on it, so at first I thought they took it out because of blasphemous reasons, but then why not the rest of it? A few pages later he is praying and worshipping half the Parthenon. So anyone know why it's there? Or maybe an alternate God, not the Christian one but maybe the unknown God or something along those lines.
You'll want to check out this answer:
("Classic philosophers usually mention God. What did they really mean? Were they actually referring to God, or was it added by translators?")
by u/iphikrates.
As well as this one
("As I understand it, ancient Greece had a pantheon of gods and goddesses, but Plato refers to God as a singular entity in his dialogues. What is behind this discrepancy in theological concepts, and how did ancient Greek philosophers conceptualize "God" if not through the pantheon?")
by u/articleofpeace.
The short answer is that it was not added by anyone else and that it certainly doesn't refer to the Judeo-Christian God. But you definitely ought to check out the first answer in particular if you want more information.