Did the Ottomans try to maintain their monopoly on the spice trade against Portuguese competition?

by i-am-goatman

One of the reasons that is often pointed to for Portugal and Spain exploring the Atlantic is that they were searching for a new route to the Spice Islands after the Ottomans monopolized the spice trade with Europe. My understanding is that in response to the Ottoman monopoly, Portugal was able to round the Cape of Good Hope, conquer a number of coastal cities, and monopolize the trade in spices themselves until the arrival of the Dutch in the Indian Ocean. Is this understanding correct, and if so what did the Ottomans do to try to stop it?

Ba_Dum_Tssssssssss

I believe this thread by u/terminus-trantor would be a good starting off point to break some misconceptions, even if it does not really answer your question: Here you go.

This comment by the same user focuses much more strongly on the main points of your question.