I do know it wasn't the only factor that came into play but i was curious how much of the rise of hittler could be blamed on the treaty and if his rise to power would happen if the treaty was far more "soft" on germans or even non existent (i am not including the need for revenge becuase it would exist either way, even if to a less extent).
Obs: i am new here so i tried to search for "treaty of versailles" to avoid questions already answered but didn't saw any refering to the relation of the treaty and nazis, so if this is a common question forgive me
There's always more to be said, but in meantime you can read more about the terms of the Treaty of Versailles in this thread.
The terms were punitive and the victors each had their own agendas in what they wanted out of the treaty. France had lost much of its industrial base in the war and even wanted to seize Germany's coal region as compensation, while Britain wanted a weakened -- but still viable -- Germany as a counterbalance to France in Europe.
The harsh terms were seen as an insult to German honour and military pride, especially in the eyes of the aristocratic officer class. At the same time, the German right had demands that the allies would never have agreed to, such as retaining all its colonial conquests.
In the interwar years, the terms of the treaty were renegotiated among the various parties multiple times, watered down, and eventually suspended indefinitely by the time Hitler assumed the chancellorship. The Great Depression, some historians have said, had far more impact on the German economy than the issue of reparations. The Nazis exploited the treaty's perceived insult to German honour and the alleged suffering caused by its harsh terms in its domestic propaganda while making the case for war.