Why does America not possess a major socialist/labor party?

by Elucidate1000

It had the proper conditions for one such as a large, disgruntled working class and a capitalist economy that could care less for the well being of the working class. Why did the Socialist movement fail where in Western Europe it became a viable force in several countries?

[deleted]

Just going to list some factoids to steer you in the right direction. It’s far too much of history to go through, but I can add some nouns and places in history for you to read further.

The Republican Party (which freed the slaves), got a compliment from Marx. Lincoln was a believer in making sure the business capital was in line with the will of the people (not as much as a communist - there was not a discussion about communal ownership - just the matter if the capital was in line with the will of the people).

The Statue of Liberty (given by a member of the Paris commune), was another beginning to early communism. (And not widely discussed). This is early communist type thought (1870s and 1880s).

After the civil war (also keep in mind - the English supported the south), there was a period of economic decline. This was also the time period that the idea of communism was getting larger in Europe. You can see anarchism and communism growing in popularity in places like the Russian Empire and Germany (serf life sucked, Russian serfdom ended in 1865- very similar to slaves being ‘freed’ here).

During this time period in the USA (Late 1800s) there was the free silver movement (in order to add more currency options to get the economy moving for the poor folks), and a few presidents that were shot by anarchists.

Also, it should be noted, it was the Republican Party that threatened to send Gatling guns to Mexico (cinco de Mayo - Mexicans kicking French colonial power out), and also this time period that the USA bought Alaska (from the Russian empire).

The Republican Party and the issue of the economy did not go ‘communalistic’.

There was the war with Spain (obtaining Puerto Rico, and the Philippines).

This is the beginning of America entering into ‘empire mode’.

After ww1 (which from communist standards was an imperialistic war from all sides - see chairman mao), the USSR was formed (very improper but for the sake of simplicity).

After ww1 the USA would be in empire mode and scared of communist thought (the Cold War is starting). The USA is also now into protecting other colonial states such as Western Europe (England, france, etc.)

Finally, after ww2, you have full blown Cold War, and suppression of socialist thought. (Socialist thought was around and there was more of a union mentality from 1900-1950 in the USA).

That should get you started. So how come no socialist parties in the USA? And why the dumbed down history?

It is intentional (Cold War), and also because the USA never had to get as communal as other countries (‘free’ land to expand).

The nature of an empire is to export the low class and keep the people in the country as a higher standard of living.

The USA is finally now leaving empire mode, and I am sure you will see socialist parties being more popular (or at least given legitimacy- since they were always there), since our overseas presence is coming to an end.

I tried my best to give you a quick run down and places to read further - but this is a huge topic in itself and covers 140 years of American history, the start of communism - which in itself brings you into European history and capital history, and also global imperial history.

Wanted to add - it also pertains to the USA having segregated media - and picking up the dirty work and brunt of protecting capital rights. Europe is more familiar with socialism, and it is harder to get them to do the lifting. That and there is a bonus to being a reserve currency (which is also leaving). It’s hard to know whose capital and to what extent it is that we defend (with how the banking works).