How Did Feudal Systems in History Happen Around the Same Time in Different Countries and Continents?

by misterizic

Something I am wondering about is how is it that feudal systems in Europe, China, and Japan popped up around the same time historically despite being in different parts of the world (8th to 10th century)? Especially considering global communication would have been far more limited/slowed down at the time (translating, or speed of travel). Was it really something as simple as neighboring countries hearing about each other's hierarchical systems through international traders, or is there more to explaining the timing of feudalism in world history?

My friend and I tried searching for explanations but feel we came up short. If anyone knows any helpful articles, links, or would like to discuss how this occurred even if there are no readily available links I would appreciate any and all input. Just genuinely curious about the timing of this and hoping for some interesting discussion.

ParallelPain

You won't find an explanation because the premise of the question is wrong. It didn't happen. Feudalism didn't happen "around the same time" in different countries and continents.

Feudalism itself as a concept is incredibly flawed and misused to the point that scholars have mostly abandoned it altogether. There are many reasons for that, for which you can search the subreddit to read up on.

However, even if we use the traditional, overly-generalized label of "feudalism" the timings are:

  1. China: 11th Century BCE to 5th~3rd Century BCE
  2. Japan: 12th Century to 19th Century or 14th to 16th Century or 17th to 19th Century
  3. Europe: 9th to 15th Century or 10th to 14th Century or 11th to 13th Century.