I’ve come across a lot of stuff about the role of the potato in demographic spikes (and as precursors to industrialisation) across Europe following the colonisation of the Americas, and am wondering if a similar effect was felt in Asian societies, and if not, why it wasn’t.
There will always be more to be said and explored, but I posted a list of links to relevant questions & answers in the following in the following thread before: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/d73r9x/what_were_the_consequences_of_the_columbian/