I was looking into Nicholas II the other day and kept thinking “why not just use your immense wealth to essentially purchase some type of support from the plebeians”. Obviously his and other European rulers like Antoinette were despised due to their vast sums of wealth and to me, by being generous with it you could rule more securely. I also recognize that there was an extreme disconnect between the ruling class the lower class so my question sidelines that reality.

Next I started thinking about how individual equality was not really a main stream idea until roughly 400(?) years ago. So to me it would make sense that they rulers could not lower their position/status or it would show that they were not worthy of that position.

Something like as a proletariat looking at a King in his chariot and thinking to yourself “Well of course he is king and I am not, just look at him”.

Was this the case to some degree and if so how much?

Also, was the acclimation of wealth in some sense pressured as Dukes or sub-rulers gained in wealth, thus requiring the rulers to continue growing their wealth so as to not seem as less than?