How can we be sure Shakespeare invented so many words when his plays are also touted as one of the few sources of 16th century common English?

by Carnieus

This has always seemed a bit of a contradiction to me. Shakespeare has been attributed to creating many of the words we still use today but his plays are also of great importance as they provide a record of common English from a time when most other written sources were in Latin. Also if so many of his words were gibberish to his audience when they first heard them would the plays have drawn such great audiences? Isn't it more reasonable he was just the first person to record slang words instead of inventing them?

Georgy_K_Zhukov

This old answer from /u/Yst and this one from /u/cdesmoulins might be of interest for you.