Was it due to natural causes (ie. drought)? Was it due to bad policies? Was it an intentional genocide? A mix?
I see lots of claims about what happened from different people on the internet (Most commonly tankies), but I was wondering what the general consensus is among actual historians.
If there isn't a general consensus, and it's still quite divisive among historians, please tell me so.
This answer by u/Kochevnik81 addresses the historical consensus on the event, discusses the word "genocide," and provides sources: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/b3e0xo/how_isnt_the_holodomor_not_a_genocide/eiz6jf1
There were key natural causes, the central government did not set out to commit genocide by famine, and post-collectivization Soviet agricultural output was, generally, good. All that does not, however, mean that the Soviet government comes away clean. At the very least, it chose to sit on its hands during a terrible disaster. That's important, if not more of a "genocide" than various actions of Western representative-democratic governments.