Would it be fair to say that much, or all, of the philosophy from antiquity that we have access to now, came mostly from academics or people of station that were, or would have become, well known for other reasons?

by matteatsneedles1332

I feel like this is self explanatory, but with the admittedly cursory knowledge I have of philosophy from the Greeks onward it seems like pretty much any philosopher of note would either have been of a status that they possessed the liberty or means to get their ideas out there, or already were / would eventually become, well known for other reasons.

Thank you.

DanKensington

it seems like pretty much any philosopher of note would either have been of a status that they possessed the liberty or means to get their ideas out there

You're on the money on this point. Also, bear in mind that widespread literacy is really quite a rare thing, as many Classicists and Medievalists (and doubtless other eraists) bemoan the general lack of voices from the common people. That is, anyone likely to leave any writings behind is also likely to be of means. Even as late as the Napoleonic Wars, testimonies from enlisted men are a lot rarer than the views of officers. More can always be said on the matter, of course, so if anyone would like to write up about philosophers and their status, please go right ahead! For the meantime, OP, here's a few previous threads that may interest you: