In the 8 and 9th century, Bohemia was flanked north and south by other "slavic" territories. A couple centuries later, eastern Austria, Hungary and modern east Germany were no longer majority "slavic", while Bohemia retained this identity to this day, the pre-WWII large German population nothwithstanding. Why did it avoid either "german" or magyar displacement/colonization/assimilation where the elbic,austrian and pannonian slavs failed?

As a second question: You have likely relialized I used "" in the ethnicity descriptors above. This is because I am afraid that I am projecting a pretty anachronistic view into the early middle ages. Am I correct to fear this?