Mapping the death of the Visigothic Identity

by Mithras-xx

When the Umayyad Caliphate entered Hispania and removed the ruling visigoths from power, only the Kingdom of Asturias remained in the far north. Seeing as pelayo was a Visigoth, the kingdom itself was most likely germanic in its practices, but other people resided in the Kingdom of Asturias, and how did the Visigoths eventually fade from the Iberian peninsula, despite occupying the noble class?

TywinDeVillena

Pelagius being a visigoth is something very much up to debate in Spanish historiography. If there is one thing that characterised the visigoths was their names, that were gothic: Roderick, Leovigild, Wamba, Chindasvinth, Vitiza, etc.

Pelagius, on the other hand, has a Roman name of Greek origin. This points towards him being a Hispano-Roman. Judging from the testament of Alfonso II of Asturias, one can gather that Pelagius had some lands in the territory of Asturias, most noticeably in Santa Eulalia de Abamia and its surroundings. Modern historiography tends to agree on the fact that Pelagius was the son of Fafila, dux Asturiensis, taking into account the fact that Pelagius' son was called Fafila.

The filiation of Fafila the elder is unclear, with late chronicles making him "of gothic royal lineage", but that is very much disputed. In the time of Alfonso II there was a gothic revivalism, trying to tie to the monarchy of Asturias to the visigothic kingdom in order to gain legitimacy. So much so, that one such chronicle (Chronicon Albeldense) says that Alfonso "restored the gothic order".

Ba_Dum_Tssssssssss

Just a quick correction, it was the Ummayad Caliphate that entered the Iberian Peninsula and not the Rashidun Caliphate.

Hopefully someone will answer your question, but I think you might be interested in this answer in the meantime.

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oops, forgot to credit

Answer is by u/thejukeboxhero