Just curious as to how many of the soldiers who fought for independence in large part on the principles of “no taxation without representation” actually had representation following the war, since as far as I know only white land owning men could vote. It seems like the soldiers who do most of the actual fighting in wars are often poor, so they might not have even been allowed to vote in their new country. Or were there land allowances given to veterans or other perks?
It depends by which state you are talking about and at what time period. Soldiers, particularly those in state militias, did take an active role in constitution building immediately after independence. As each state drafted its new constitution, some allowed for broader suffrage. For example Pennsylvania's original government allowed all tax paying men to vote rather than just property owners and had specific provisions for militia members to participate in the democracy. Vermont, not technically a state of the United States yet at this point, allowed for universal male suffrage without tax paying qualifications. One state, New Jersey, even allowed for propertied women widows to vote for a few years through something of a legal loophole.
Other states like Virginia and Delaware largely retained their property requirements, though especially in the case of Virginia the class divisions in its militias posed a serious threat to the upper class (in conjunction with British efforts to undermine slavery in the state) as militia members protested their unequal treatment.