In “The Subjection of Women” JS Mill writes “the wife is the actual bondservant of her husband.” How accurate is this characterization, as well as the rest of the claims JS Mill makes on the legal status of women in England at this time?

by tootspatoots

For example, other claims he makes are:

  • Married women owned no property, all property they had before the marriage would be transferred to their husbands.
  • Women had almost no legal rights over their children, they were by law the husbands children. Even if the husband died, custody of the children was determined by his legal will, not automatically given to the wife.
  • It was incredibly hard for women to legally separate from their husbands, and if they unofficially separated the husband could force her to return or subsume her wages.

Bonus question: How does this compare to the legal (and practical) status of women in France?

In general, would love to have any recommendations on books or papers to read that deal with this topic in England or France.

mimicofmodes

All accurate. I have a number of past answers that relate to this:

Jane Austen and the Brontes are among the most treasured voices in the English language despite having published anonymously at a time when married women weren't permitted to enter into contracts. Were there any role models for women writers of their generation? Did their prominence affect these laws?

Was domestic abuse of wives, under the vile guise of corporal punishment, ever seen as acceptable in upper or middle class America?

What was married sex life like before birth control?

What rights did women have in Britain vs. French-controlled territory in the Napoleonic period?

Family law in the Victorian era

Generally, at least in the West, when a couple gets divorced the woman is far more likely to get custody of the children. Was Women's suffrage in the 20th Century the turning point of this?