Yes, you pretty much answered it yourself, although feudalism (what is that even?) is certainly not a criterium in your example of Japan, where it's, depending on who you ask, beginning somewhere in the 10th century (or 11th or 12th) all the way up the to the end of the 16th (we don't argue about the end as much).

You might be able to relate to this earlier question (and my attempt at an answer, which apparently was good enough an attempt, but more can always be said).