Basically, my great-grandfather was sent to a labor camp in the Netherlands in early 1944 and contracted a staph infection that led to his death at age 27. He was Jewish and his wife was not so his deportation was delayed after a few call-ups but they eventually sent him. I'm wondering why they would have let him go to a hospital in a nearby city. I'm assuming it was most likely just so that he could keep performing labor, but couldn't they have easily let him die and arrested another person? His career wasn't in labor and it was fairly shortly after he got to the camp, so I can't imagine that he would have been particularly "outstanding." I don't have many details but I do know for sure that he died in a regular hospital off of the camp. His family was even allowed to visit him in his last moments and my grandmother has told me that while the conditions were awful, the laborers still had communication with home and could even go to the city on the weekends. Why was he taken to the hospital? Why were they fairly "lenient" as opposed to other camps?
(Also: very uninterested in any kind of "the Holocaust wasn't as bad as people think" comments or thoughts.)
A similar question was asked just yesterday that answers yours, see this comment by u/Georgy_K_Zhukov about disease outbreaks in concentration camps:
Do you know which camp specifically? We had a number of them in the Netherlands, so maybe knowing the specific one might give some clues. I also think your suggestion of it being because of his mixed marriage might not be too far off the mark, perhaps that did give him a special status (iirc Jewish people in mixed marriage were protected from deportation for a while after the occupation started).