Should we assume most Romans were literate enough to read the graffiti strewn about the cities of their empire?

by RusticBohemian

It strikes me as unlikely that graffiti would have been so ubiquitous if only 10% of the population were capable of reading it. Should we assume a basic level of literacy was widespread. Perhaps people couldn't decipher the flowery language of Cicero, but they could make out the sexual puns or political slogans scrawled on walls?

Alkibiades415

I could swear I wrote a lengthy reply to this identical question some years ago, but I can't find it now. On a side note, it is virtually impossible to search one's own reddit posts now. Not even the two external search tools work anymore. A bit baffling in 2021, but here we are. Fortunately, I was able to find better answers than my long-lost attempt from these other fine folks:

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/apjcw7/what_was_literacy_like_in_ancient_times/

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3huswa/how_literate_was_the_average_roman_citizen_did/

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4z739k/how_common_was_it_for_roman_slaves_to_be_able_to/

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/61z9i4/pompeii_graffiti_did_most_commoners_know_how_to/