Why did the Greeks came to call two geographical areas by the name Iberia (One in the Caucausus and one in the Iberian peninsula) when they're so far removed from each other?

by hariseldon2

Does the name mean something that could pertain to both areas? Were they populated by related people?

OreoObserver

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3zgy3r/was_it_just_a_coincidence_that_there_was_more

Two relevant answers in this thread from u/elev57 and u/kaisermatias.