Thank you in advance for your help - I am awed by the knowledge of those on this subreddit.
Please correct me if I am wrong, but I understand that the Neolithic in Tunisia ended only with the arrival of Phoenicians in roughly 1000BC. This would mean that there was no independent development of the Bronze Age methods (which began, for example, in Britain in 2500BC), but instead a rapid move directly to the Iron Age on the establishment of Carthage. I cannot seem to find much information or research on this.
Is this an accurate account? Can anyone share any more information? What are Tunisians taught in school and university about this part of their history?
Hey there,
Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.
If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!