“Throughout the 19th and early 20th century, public sex (especially in parks) was far more common than it is today, for lack of better options.” Is this assertion true? If so, when did this change and why?

by TendingTheirGarden

I saw a historian tweet something along these lines and it made me wonder! Does it come down to how people’s living situations have evolved over time, with more young single people living on their own rather than with family?

10z20Luka

Questions like this have been asked and answered before, here are some links to responses mostly written by /u/annalspornographie:

https://old.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/35umoo/can_someone_explain_the_invention_of_privacy_to_me/

Another one, also relevant, about sex in the home:

https://old.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2r4sq7/how_did_couples_with_children_have_sex_in_one/