Why were the americas so underdeveloped prior to colonization compared to Europe? From the Spaniard’s accounts they barely passed the Stone Age meanwhile Europeans were almost to the industrial Revolution, why?
I advise you to reframe your assumptions and consider this section of the FAQ, the first two sections of which are relevant. If I were to name 'barely passed the Stone Age' as 'problematic', I would be very, very charitable to your words.