So, I was wondering if "jus primae noctis" was in fact real, and in the affirmative case, how common...
Personally, the whole concept just seems a little bit ridiculous, even for medieval times, and it sures seems like a good way to piss of a bunch of peasants.
It's been asked and answered before on here, e.g. https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1yknh9/what_would_have_happened_if_a_child_were_to_be/