Obviously France and England both had their own versions of feudalism, in which local aristocrats exercised power on behalf of a national monarch. But maps such as this one and this one imply that power in the Holy Roman Empire was much more localized than in France or England, with considerably less central authority. Was this actually the case?
While there's always space for more commentary, and I welcome any additions from the community, I've adressed very similar questions regarding the depiction of the Holy Roman Empire compared to other polities in early modern Europe here and here. Hopefully this helps to answer your question and feel free to ask any follow ups.