If the fall of Rome and the dark ages supposedly set Europe far back then how did Europe still end up more advanced than India, China and the Middle East who didn’t experience a dark age? | AskHistorians Archive Observer

If the fall of Rome and the dark ages supposedly set Europe far back then how did Europe still end up more advanced than India, China and the Middle East who didn’t experience a dark age?

by Reading-is-good

Holy_Shit_HeckHounds

This answer from the FAQ may be helpful

Why did European powers, in particular, start dominating and developing at a rate which other powers of the time (Ottoman Empire, Ming Dynasty in China, Saffavids in Persia and the Moghul Empire in India) could barely keep up with? by /u/profrhodes

ParallelPain

Please see here for one of the many discussions on why historians no longer believe Europe experienced a "dark age" anymore.