One would think that after several hundred years of Ottoman rule, the population of Greece would have a substantial muslim population. Instead, muslims constitute only 2% of the population. Why is this the case?
Perhaps the answer is not up to today's standards of this sub but this has been answered previously -> https://reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3inuzd/why_isnt_there_a_significant_muslim_population_in/
(And I think the answer is objective enough that you will be satisfied)