Why weren't hallucinogenics used more widespread for religious purposes after the dark ages in Europe?

by Rowsdower32

It seems to me that hallucinogenics were used by many tribal and polytheistic religions, or that it may at least have some base. I've heard some think God appearing as a burning bush was from Moses burning some Acacia trees and breathing it in. Also I had heard accounts of what Greeks would drink for wine seems to sound more like hallucinogenics than drunkenness. There are so many more that used it for religious ceremonies , (vikings, etc). It seems to me though like by the time the Mideival era rolled around there was not as much mention of it, and by the industrial era, I feel like it would have been a foreign concept in th e west.

DanKensington

Mainly because there weren't much psychedelics to be found in Europe to begin with. More can always be said on the matter, so if anyone else would like to go at pre-modern psychedelic use, please don't hesitate to write up your own posts!