this may be for a different board but I wanted to see if anyone here could direct me to some resources.
My question: With German and Latin being the main contributors to English and both of them being very gendered in language how did English not gain this as a feature of the language?
There's a rather old answer on this matter, but you might be better off checking through linguistics subreddits. If you're looking for a more formal and researched source of an answer, the book Gender Shifts in the History of English by Anne Curzan may be of use to you.