I saw a quote attributed to Churchill, just after WW1, which said something like "If Germany is allowed to merchandise again in the next 50 years, we will have led this war in vain". This got me thinking, it's clear that Britain/France were worried about competitive German trade after WW1. If Germany was still seen as a massive threat after the first war, why wasn't more done to strictly impose the terms of the Versailles treaty? The obvious answer seems to be that no-one wanted another war, but if Germany was allowed to continue as it pleased, surely war was inevitable in the future anyway?
Hey there,
Just to let you know, your question is fine, and we're letting it stand. However, you should be aware that questions framed as 'Why didn't X do Y' relatively often don't get an answer that meets our standards (in our experience as moderators). There are a few reasons for this. Firstly, it often can be difficult to prove the counterfactual: historians know much more about what happened than what might have happened. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that look obvious now didn't necessarily look that way at the time.
If you end up not getting a response after a day or two, consider asking a new question focusing instead on why what happened did happen (rather than why what didn't happen didn't happen) - this kind of question is more likely to get a response in our experience. Hope this helps!