Sorry, what is the main source on OP's hypothetical premise (the famine in Scandinavia triggered the Viking expansion)?
AFAIK the overpopulation and the colder climate as primary incentives of the Vikingshad been based on the classical/ medieval literary cliche, and has been refuted in any serious academic literature on the Vikings for long (at least for about half a century).
As for the latter part of OP's question, the osteological research of skeletons across medieval Europe seems not to show any noticeable difference between Scandinavians and non-Scandinavians (Cf. Steckel 2004).
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