There's a lot of information floating around with the newest escalation, and I have a gist of the history except for one thing, it sounds like the Jewish people just kind of, decided to go there, was the existing state welcoming of them in the first place?

During the late 1800s, there was no specific state there. Rather, it was part of the Ottoman Empire, which had varied immigration policies, but generally it seems that they allowed Jewish immigration to the area but were firm that it would never result in any grant of statehood or autonomy.

Of course, these policies were not consistent. Ottoman immigration restrictions were placed on Jewish immigration to what is now Israel in 1882, for example, in part due to the fear of Zionism. Yet Jews found ways around these policies, which resulted in Ottoman responses. At any rate, following Ottoman rule, the British took over the area after WWI, and allowed Jewish immigration more or less unfettered until the Arab Revolt of 1936, after which they implemented immigration restrictions in 1939 in an issued White Paper. That left restrictions in place largely until Israel was founded in 1948, amidst civil war and then international war.

So I am not sure that there was an "existing state" in the sense you're asking about, i.e. a state of Palestine that consented or didn't consent to Jewish immigration. If you mean did local Arabs consent or like the Jewish immigration, the answer is "no". This was, in part, the cause of multiple riots and the revolt in 1936, the last of which was fomented as well as the Arab desire for independence from the British during that period (obviously, hence the use of the term "revolt").

Does that help? I can drill into specifics, but I'm trying to just sort of figure out the limits of your question overall.