Are there any ancient empires that were completely illiterate? Or was literacy a prerequisite to managing territory encompassing several urban areas?

by StanleyLaurel

Obviously the big players of the ancient classical empires like Rome were literate- but what about the Carthaginians? Minoans? I assume the persians too were literate. And I guess record-keeping was a must in all such empires, and it's a small step from markings representing objects to full literacy.. Just curious, thanks

CaptainRhino

The Inca did not have writing in the same way that we do, but they did record information using a system of knotted strings called khipu.

See this answer by u/Kelpie-Cat

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/k4ys0b/comment/ged0phm