I was always under the impression that Feudal Japan ended around the time Meiji Restoration but I have seen dates that are couple of decades before the Meiji Restoration and wondering “what was a factor that made the dates different from what I usually thought it was”
Because not even historians of Medieval Europe, who came up with the term, can agree what the term means. They can't even agree on whether feudalism existed. If no one can agree on the definition of feudalism, obviously then they can't agree on when, if ever, it applied to Japan. The Japanese themselves call their system hōken, which is a borrowed term for what the Chinese used to describe the system that existed in the Zhou Dynasty. For a long time the term, including the Chinese one, has been translated as "feudalism". However this has been called into question as well, as there were important differences between what existed in Europe and what existed in Japan and China. And that's ignoring what differences between Japan a few hundred years ago and China well over a thousand years ago.
Most scholars across the globe right now (whether about Chinese, Japanese, or Europe) probably avoid the question by describing the system, and only use the label (any label) when necessary.