Was the 4 humors theory of medicine even partially effective, if it lasted so long?

by Beavisx_K_90

We know that the 4 humors theory of medicine (that lasted ~2000 years) is false and this theory has been completely abbandoned in the 19th century in favour of the germs theory (germs cause diseases and not an unbalance of "humors").

If we know that these theories were false, why did they last so long? Were they even remotely effective to cure symptoms and diseases? What about bloodletting? Didn't people in antiquity notice that this and the other methods for "humor balance" were not effective? (Or maybe I am wrong and they were for a couple cases remotely related to the diseases and they could indeed help with the healing process?)

Was this "classical" theory of medicine (4 humors) of antiquity more effective than, let's say, healing methods of monks?

voyeur324

/u/Khowaga and /u/Noble_Devil_Boruta have previously answered How did Humorism survive the Black Plague? which might be helpful to you.

I see you have posted this question more than once. I hope you have more luck getting new answers.