In History class, we learned that people (Europeans) traveled the world for exotic spices and that for a long time, a lot of the international market was these highly-valued treasures. Same with salt. Simultaneously, we learned that spices were used by the poor (in Europe) to hide the taste of meat going bad, and salt was a preservative before refrigeration.
These two stories seem to disagree on the value of spices and salt, and which socioeconomic groups/cuisines had access to them. Is one of them a lie (e.g. associate 'foreign' spices with poor food)? Do they represent different time periods? Are they both true in the same time period? Basically, how do I reconcile these two seemingly contradictory 'facts' I was taught?
Spice must flow!
Before other responses come in, you might be interested in the following entries: This thread concerning adulteration of spices by u/sunagainstgold, u/MarcusDohrelius and u/Owan.
This response about the general availability of spices by u/sunagainstgold.
This response about the general usage of spices that also addresses the alleged usage of spices for hiding smell of spoiled meat.
The ubiquity and relatively low price of salt was discussed in this thread by u/PabstBlueGibbon and myself.