Hello,
In my history class, my teacher indicates that Stalin stopped the blockade of Berlin in May 1949 because the Americans had found a way to bypass it by an air bridge.
Yet if we consider the excessive cost of the air transport, why Stalin did not continue the blockade indefinitely, which would eventually exhaust the Americans even more?
I mean, even if the blockade was ineffective it cost the USSR nothing but cost the Americans a lot.
/u/jbdyer has previously answered Why did Stalin risk war with the West during the Berlin Blockade when the Soviet Union was still decimated from WWII and the United States was the only state with nuclear weapons? Did he seriously expect the West to capitulate?
Someone else might have more to say.