Why were socialist countries more gender-equal than their capitalist counterparts?

by rasalghularz

Women's suffrage was granted. Abortion was legalized in 1920, making the Soviet Union the first country to do so (though it was banned again between 1936 and 1955.) In 1922, marital rape was made illegal. Maternity leave was legally required, and a national network of child-care centers was established. The country's first constitution recognized the equal rights of women. All of this came in capitalist countries much later.

Was it only because the people were far more conservative then and since the USA, UK, etc were democratic countries, the politicians listened to the people which was simply not an option in the USSR. Or was something else at play?

rasalghularz

Note: Though the government recognized women rights, the people were still quite conservative. Many people still thought women solely were responsible for house work and this often backfired as many women worked all day and then go home, do the cooking, cleaned the house, took care of the children, etc. (The men were not really responsible for house work) and sexist attitudes still prevailed.