It depends on what you consider, "The Renaissance." Given that many definitions would have the "Renaissance" process start in 15th century Italy (about a century prior to the Protestant Reformation) I'd say that a quick answer to your question is that the Renaissance and the Reformation clearly represent two distinct parts of European History (beyond the fact that the Renaissance is largely understood to mean an artistic and humanist movement, while the Protestant Reformation was a religious and political movement, although it's not hard to find common ground between the two). Of course, you might be focusing on the Renaissance as applicable only to Northern European countries like England, the Netherlands, or Germany, in which case humanist trends originating in Southern Europe made their appearance closer to the time of the Protestant Reformation, and there might definetely be more overlap in those same humanist trends. Is there a connecting line between these two "Neighboring" general social and intellectual trends? Sure, why not. It's there if you want to look for it. I think it all depends on how we frame our periodization.

But what even is "The Renaissance?" What values, ideas, and trends would you say encapsulates it? I've tackled some of those question a long time ago in this short answer which might interest you.