Question for OP. Do you have any specific time period in mind or any context for your question? Your question is very broad right now and would be a lot easier to answer if I could get a little context for why you are asking?

Short answer is otherwise no, not every Swedish noble person were rich during the roughly 740 years that has passed since the establishment of the Swedish nobility (codified in the ordinance of Alsnö in 1280 ce). Swedish nobility originally consisted mostly of wealthy land owners that received privileges from the state/king in return for military and political support. During the centuries that came after, this group expanded to include everything from incredibly wealthy landowners to simple military officers with little fortune to their names (my own family is included in that group). I could probably be more helpful though if you gave a little more context.