Why don't Anglo Saxon Kings of England have their regnal numbers separate to the post Norman Conquest Kings, obviously for some it wouldn't matter but for say Edward the Confessor why wouldn't that carry over?

by Iambasicallyagod
WelfOnTheShelf

u/Valkine answered a similar question a few days ago:

When Edward 'Longshanks' became king of England in 1272, why did he take the throne as Edward I instead of Edward II, given that England had at one point been ruled by Edward the Confessor (1042-1066)? Was the Norman conquest considered to have marked a decisive break in state continuity?

Iambasicallyagod

Made a mistake in typing I meant Why do