At what point did the Normans stop resembling the Norse?

by xenoptics

Whenever I hear about the Normans, people seem to jump from them landing in France, and then immediately jump to the conquests in Sicily and England.

In the beginning, even though they were learning French and being christianized, for a while they surely still resembled and acted like Vikings. Is there a set time for when their culture and actions became more French, or was it more nebulous?

y_sengaku

While there will always be more to be said, generally speaking, the first decades of the 11th century (up to ca. 1035) was the threshold of the cultural distance between Normandy and Scandinavia, as I summarized in: