I had a lesson on witchcraft today in AP European history and we were shown some primary sources and quotes and stuff along with this chart (my teacher had written the source under the chart but it wasn't on the google doc he posted and haven't found it online). I asked and my teacher said it was because women were that much more oppressed in Eastern Europe that they were simply overlooked in witch trials. His explanation for the numbers in Venice was that there was a significant homosexual population, which makes sense, but the reasoning for Eastern Europe doesn't seem as plausible to me. Is that the case or is there another reason?