Why did Nazi-Germany attack the USSR and therefore opening up a second front without first defeating the UK and her allies? A war on two fronts is exactly what led to the defeat of Germany in WW1. | AskHistorians Archive Observer

Why did Nazi-Germany attack the USSR and therefore opening up a second front without first defeating the UK and her allies? A war on two fronts is exactly what led to the defeat of Germany in WW1.

by LanvinC9

It would've made sense to take out the UK first as Germany already had a non-agression pact with the USSR. My thinking was Germany first defeats the UK and get her to sign an armistice giving Germany a "free hand" in continental Europe. Then Germany turns their entire war machine to the USSR.

Holy_Shit_HeckHounds

From the FAQ:

Did Germany and The Soviet Union ever consider becoming allies in WWII? by /u/kieslowski_fan

EDIT: added the answers I linked in follow up comments

Additionally: Why did Hitler attack The Soviet Union so early? Wouldn’t it have made more sense to finish up the war with The UK before attacking them as to not create a two-front war? written by u/andriah_blashkovich

and

Why did Hitler attack Russia (aka the Soviet Union) in the winter? Didn't he learn anything from Napoleon? written by u/Starwarsnerd222 gives a long answer to a somewhat related question, but briefly touches on some of the rationale behind the invasion of the Soviet Union over defeating Britain first