Why did American founders direct all of their anger in the Declaration of Independence towards the king, when every decision they had a grievance with was made by the parliament?

by SuspiciousTurtle

This might be me completely misreading history, but by the time of George III, the British Monarch had already largely been relegated to the symbolic role we think of today. So why did the American Founding Fathers direct all of their anger and grievance towards him, when it was parliament that was making all of the decisions on taxes and government actions in the American colonies?

MolotovCollective

Related question if that’s okay, but why was almost the reverse true on the lead up to the French Revolution only a decade later? The king was pushing really hard for very unpopular tax reform, and he kept having to hire new ministers to try, and fail, to implement them before he’d fire them and hire a new one. But instead of being mad at the king, most protests blamed those policies on the nobility and on the finance and justice ministers. After the failed Assembly of the Notables, the people even marched saying “long live the king, down with Brienne and Lamoignon.” All this, despite the fact that the transcript of the Assembly of the Notables was published openly to the public, so it’s not like the king’s intentions were secret, and the king even did the typical absolutist thing of doing a lit de justice ceremony ordering the parlement to carry out his plan, but the public still largely blamed the ministers and nobility.