I recently heard that the Black death skirted around Poland in the 14th century and it was not nearly as impacted as the rest of Europe. My question is this. Is it possible the communities there had encountered this virus before and still had some immunity? Or did it amount to the lack or trade form the Mediterranean region?
It's a common notion, but it's not quite correct. u/mikedash has a phenomenally thorough examination of Polish 'Black Death exceptionalism' here. As always, should anyone have further insights to add, please feel quite free to do so!