According to Al Jazeera, it wasn‘t until 1982 that West Germany officially recognize the Nazi‘s genocide of Roma and Sinti people. But why did this recognition occur in 1982?

by King_Vercingetorix

As in, why did this happen in 1982? Was there a particular public push for decades (beforehand) for this kind of recognition? Did the public views on the Roma and Sinti genocide finally caught with the scholarship?

Quote from Al Jazeera in question.

In 1982, Germany officially recognised the genocide of the Roma and Sinti, a related people who live mostly in German-speaking areas of Central Europe

voyeur324

/u/estherke has previously answered Why did West Germany deny including Romani in the holocaust until 1979 when they have been so upfront about the genocide against the Jewish population? with additional input from /u/yodatsracist

/u/silverliningdebrecen participated in this year's AskHistorians Digital Conference and spoke about the intersection of Jewish and Romani Holocaust memory (his presentation begins at about the 23:30 mark on the video).