It seems to me that, water purification not being what it is now until relatively recently, and ale, wine, mead, etc. being common drinks, is it unfair to look at historical decisions as being made largely by an upper / ruling class that was subsisting quite a bit on alcohol? Does this come into historical considerations at all?
Paging Dr. u/dankensington!
Anyway maybe their flair-sense is already tingling, but in case it isn't, here's a link to their most recent entry on this Frequently-Asked Question.