Why were there so many prophets in the 1700s and 1800s?

by GeneralizedFlatulent

I'm sorry if someone has asked this before but I didn't see it in the search. I tried to find some answers on google scholar but I'm not sure what key words to use.

Here is a list of some that were influential in early America:

https://www.nonsda.org/egw/egw32.shtml

But there were others including the camisard in southern France mentioned here:

https://www.nps.gov/articles/history-of-the-shakers.htm

I just used the top link because it's fairly comprehensive as far as "lists of prophetic movements" go - a lot in one place. Not to imply that's all of them, or the limit of my question.

One thought I have had is that maybe these movements would have been more common in general if it wasn't for organized/state religion where you could be said to be heretical. Maybe it's kind of like how shamanism was common, and not a big issue where there wasn't organized state religion.

Maybe a lot of them ended up in America because of the frontier and freedom of religion, so maybe it was easier to find a way to actually grow as a movement there. Maybe it had something to do with Protestantism and a focus on a personal relationship with the divine.

But I'm really not sure. Do we know if this was for example actually an anomaly? Was it actually sort of trendy at that time? Is it weirder that it seems like there's less movements like this right now - or are there really less? Do we know what kind of historical context led to this?

schreyerauthor

I don't know for sure and I'm not sure if this comment is allowed but

The time period in question is similar or the same as the rise of the esoteric and occult in England. Tarot, stances, ghosts, the first vampire novel, its all a similar time span. Is it possible these trends were tied to the rise in mysticism in the church in some way?