Did an Aztec "colonial aristocracy" form in Mexico after the spanish conquest? If not, why didn't it happen?

by Confucius3000

In Peru, the Panacas (the "incan royal houses") who assisted the Spanish Conquistadors kept their aristocratic status in Colonial Peru. In fact, many pieces of peruvian colonial art were financed by Incan patrons, and they ended up having great pride of their ancestry.

This caste would be abolished around the late 18th century, after the Great Rebellion of Tupac Amaru, when an Incan noble who claimed descent from the last Incan ruler organized an armed rebellion to vanquish the Spaniards.

Did the spaniards recognize an Aztec (or Tlaxcala?) nobility during the colonial years? If not, why didn't this happen?

Holy_Shit_HeckHounds

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What happened to the Tlaxcalans? written by u/Jolex41

Why did the "Spanish" conquest of Mexico end up that way... written by u/drylaw

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